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发帖数: 30 | 1 Wondering if any expert in this field can answer the question.
To simplify, just assume: my wealthy grandpa is dividing family assets to
the family members. He owns a company. I get some shares of his company. I
also inherit a corp note: the company owes me a face value of X; will repay
me the face value of X in 5 years; each year there is coupon payment to me
at 6%; the company can pre-pay the face value at the end of year 2.
Part I
Using PV method, if the bond is prepaid at the end of year 2, | i**********o
发帖数: 5993 | 2 Part 1, you get Y amount at year end 2 and forfeit your Note. Face value X
is not longer relevant. PV(Y) = 100.
Part 2,do not see extra value... you get regular coupon and pincipal back if you are
lucky enough... liguidity is a risk...
you better post the original question... would be easier to understand... |
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