d****2
发帖数: 118 | 1 2-17. A 42-year-old woman comes for a follow-up examination. Two weeks ago,
her blood pressure was 152/94 mm Hg during a routine visit. Her blood
pressure today is 150/94 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 14/min
. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Na+ 142 mEq/L
Cl– 105 mEq/L
K+ 4 mEq/L
HCO3– 26 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen (BUN) 12 mg/dL
Glucose 101 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
An ECG shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in |
n***8
发帖数: 634 | 2 B
C
E
B
B
B
These are the "correct answers" I got from my pdf version of MNEB.
Some answers I found I can understand, others I totally have no idea.
The pain of NMEB is there is no explaination. |
d****2
发帖数: 118 | |
d*******e
发帖数: 89 | |
n***8
发帖数: 634 | 5 2 hypertension, Cushing.
【在 d*******e 的大作中提到】
: 2, why not A?
: Thanks
|
b*****8
发帖数: 59 | 6 3-21. A previously healthy 85-year-old man has had abdominal distention,
decreased caliber of stools, and decreased appetite over the past 2 weeks
and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss over the past 3 months. On sigmoidoscopy, he
is found to have a constricting adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon; imaging
studies show three 1-cm metastases to the liver. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next step in management?
C) Chemotherapy
In kaplan note, a single liver metastatic lesion is surgical re |
d****2
发帖数: 118 | 7 3-21. A previously healthy 85-year-old man has had abdominal distention,
decreased caliber of stools, and decreased appetite over the past 2 weeks
and a 9-kg (20-lb) weight loss over the past 3 months. On sigmoidoscopy, he
is found to have a constricting adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon; imaging
studies show three 1-cm metastases to the liver. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next step in management?
D) Chemo and radiation
My MD friend did D because of radiation theray for cons |
w*********0
发帖数: 101 | 8 我觉得3-21的答案应该是E
这个病人有肠梗阻的迹象（abdominal distention)，应该先手术再化疗 |
n***8
发帖数: 634 | 9 This is what I think , the Correct answer is E.
On FA : "1. Resect of the 1st lesion." is the number 1 in Treatment.
【在 w*********0 的大作中提到】
: 我觉得3-21的答案应该是E
: 这个病人有肠梗阻的迹象（abdominal distention)，应该先手术再化疗
|
