y*****w
发帖数: 1350 | 1 If I have a "change from baseline to follow-up" variable Y as the dependent
variable, and its baseline counterpart X and another baseline variable Z as
the independent variables, then for the model Y=X Z, the coefficient for X
was negative whereas the coefficient for Z was positive. Nevertheless,
univariably Y was negatively associated with X but there was no relation
between Y and Z. On the other hand, X and Z were highly positively
correlated, which makes it confusing when interpreting the mod | D******n
发帖数: 2836 | 2 curiously , why are there two baselines?
dependent
as
several
【在 y*****w 的大作中提到】
: If I have a "change from baseline to follow-up" variable Y as the dependent
: variable, and its baseline counterpart X and another baseline variable Z as
: the independent variables, then for the model Y=X Z, the coefficient for X
: was negative whereas the coefficient for Z was positive. Nevertheless,
: univariably Y was negatively associated with X but there was no relation
: between Y and Z. On the other hand, X and Z were highly positively
: correlated, which makes it confusing when interpreting the mod
| g**r
发帖数: 425 | 3 why not run two models:
Z=X get the residue, and use this as the nz.
Run your model Y=X nz
then your interpretation became much easier.
dependent
as
several
【在 y*****w 的大作中提到】
: If I have a "change from baseline to follow-up" variable Y as the dependent
: variable, and its baseline counterpart X and another baseline variable Z as
: the independent variables, then for the model Y=X Z, the coefficient for X
: was negative whereas the coefficient for Z was positive. Nevertheless,
: univariably Y was negatively associated with X but there was no relation
: between Y and Z. On the other hand, X and Z were highly positively
: correlated, which makes it confusing when interpreting the mod
| y*****w
发帖数: 1350 | 4 Thanks for upstairs' inputs. I think I got myself purplexed. I have figured it out. |
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